Why do some people think that newer translations, which are farther in time away from the originals, do a better job at bringing us closer to the originals than the KJV which was translated at a time when more of the originals existed?
Share on Facebook
Subscribe to be notified when a new post is published.
This entry was posted on Tuesday, October 12th, 2004 at 8:57 pm by gahammerle and is filed under Uncategorized. You can follow any responses to this entry through the RSS 2.0 feed.
You can leave a response, or trackback from your own site.
